2016-FRR Test Passing Score & 2016-FRR Practice Test Online
2016-FRR Test Passing Score & 2016-FRR Practice Test Online
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GARP Financial Risk and Regulation (FRR) Series Sample Questions (Q240-Q245):
NEW QUESTION # 240
Which of the following statements explains how securitization makes retail assets highly liquid and the balance sheet easier to manage?
I. The bank can raise capital by selling the securitized bonds.
II. Any need to diversify credit risk can be achieved by selling the bank's own securitized bonds and buying other bonds that increase diversification.
III. The value of the securitization is linked to the credit rating of the bank and hence is easy to include in medium-term financial plans.
IV. Securitizations can be used to hedge credit risk by using limited market instruments.
- A. I, IV
- B. I, II
- C. I, II, III
- D. I, III, IV
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
Securitization transforms illiquid retail assets (e.g., mortgages) into tradable securities, enhancing liquidity and balance sheet flexibility:
* I:Selling securitized bonds raises capital, reducing reliance on deposits and freeing up the balance sheet (correct).
* II:Selling these bonds and buying others diversifies credit risk, improving portfolio management (correct).
* III:The value of securitization depends on the underlying assets' credit quality, not the bank's rating, making this statement incorrect.
Reference:GARP FRR Study Notes, Credit Risk Section; BCBS, "Basel III: The Liquidity Coverage Ratio," January 2013, para. 50-55.
NEW QUESTION # 241
As Japan ___ its budget deficits and ___ its dependence on debt, the Japanese currency, JPY, would ___ in value against other currencies.
- A. Reduces, increases, depreciate
- B. Reduces, reduces, depreciate
- C. Reduces, reduces, appreciate
- D. Increases, reduces, appreciate
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a country reduces its budget deficits and lowers its dependence on debt, it generally strengthens its fiscal position. This can lead to increased investor confidence and higher demand for the country's currency.
In Japan's case, if it reduces its budget deficits and its dependence on debt, the Japanese yen (JPY) would likely appreciate in value against other currencies. This appreciation occurs because a stronger fiscal position reduces the risk of inflation and debt defaults, making the currency more attractive to investors.
NEW QUESTION # 242
Which one of the following four statements regarding counterparty credit risk is INCORRECT?
- A. The exposure at default is variable due to fluctuations in swap valuations.
- B. Dynamic collateral provisions often increase counterparty risk considerably.
- C. Counterparty credit risk refers to the inability to realize gains in a contract with a counterparty due to its
default. - D. The exposure at default can be negatively correlated to probability of default.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 243
Which of the following statements regarding collateralized debt obligations (CDOs) is correct?
I. CDOs typically have loans or bonds as underlying collateral.
II. CDOs generally less risky than CMOs.
III. There is a correlation among defaults in the CDO collateral which should be considered in valuation of these complex instruments.
- A. I only
- B. I and III
- C. II and III
- D. I, II, and III
Answer: B
Explanation:
Collateralized debt obligations (CDOs) typically have loans or bonds as underlying collateral (Statement I).
There is also a correlation among defaults in the CDO collateral, which should be considered in their valuation due to the complexity of these instruments (Statement III). Therefore, the correct statements are I and III.
NEW QUESTION # 244
Which one of the following statements correctly identifies risks in foreign exchange forwards?
- A. Short-term forward price fluctuations are driven by changes in the spot exchange rate, since most inter-country interest rates differentials are small, and the effect of compounding is small for short periods of time.
- B. Long-term forward price fluctuations are driven by changes in the spot exchange rate, since most inter-country interest rates differentials are small, and the effect of compounding is large for short periods of time.
- C. Short-term forward price fluctuations are driven by changes in the spot exchange rate, since most inter-country interest rates differentials are significant, and the effect of compounding is large for short periods of time.
- D. Long-term forward price fluctuations are driven by changes in the spot exchange rate, since most inter-country interest rates differentials are significant, and the effect of compounding is small for short periods of time.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Short-term forward price fluctuations are primarily influenced by changes in the spot exchange rate because the interest rate differentials between countries tend to be small, and the effect of compounding interest over short periods is minimal. This relationship emphasizes that in the short term, the primary driver of forward prices is the current spot rate rather than interest rate differentials.
References:This explanation aligns with financial theories related to forward pricing and the factors affecting short-term foreign exchange markets.
NEW QUESTION # 245
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